Richard Wordingham richard.wordingham at ntlworld.com
Tue Mar 28 11:14:35 CDT 2017

On Tue, 28 Mar 2017 21:10:58 +0900
"Martin J. Dürst" <duerst at it.aoyama.ac.jp> wrote:
(in Re: Standaridized variation sequences for the Desert alphabet?)

> On 2017/03/27 21:59, Michael Everson wrote:

> > Aa and Ɑɑ are used contrastively for different sounds in some
> > languages and in the IPA. Ɡɡ is not, to my knowledge, used
> > contrastively with Gg (except that ɡ can only mean /ɡ/, while
> > orthographic g can mean /ɡ/, /dʒ/, /x/ etc. But g vs ɡ is
> > reasonably analogous to �� and <lig>����</lig> being used for /juː/.  

> The contrastive use *in some languages or notations* (IPA) is the
> reason these are separately encoded.

I thought that reason is that at the time, the IPA proscribed the use of
the two-storey 'g' in phonetic notation.  They have since relented.
This was disunification on the basis that one form simply looks wrong.

Which writing system contrasts the two?


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